The implication of this is that if the On Thu, 2005-09-29 at 17:31 -0500, Aaron Cannon wrote:
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You might also check David's In-Progress list. That way, you can see if anyone else is working on that title. http://www.dprice48.freeserve.co.uk/GutIP.html
Sincerely Aaron Cannon
At 12:19 PM 9/29/2005, you wrote:
Rod:
Thanks for your interest!
There are still a huge number of eligible, worth-while texts which have not been added to Project Gutenberg, simply because no volunteer has done them yet.
For purposes of posting to Project Gutenberg, we need to be able to show that a book is not covered by copyright in the US, according to one of the rules as described here: http://www.gutenberg.org/howto/copyright-howto
Generally, that will mean that you must use an imprint that was published prior to 1923, or that _says_ it is a reprint of a pre-1923 imprint. Publishers do often put a new copyright notice on a book when there is actually no new material that merits copyright protection, but there is little we can do about that.
Also, take a look at http://www.gutenberg.org/faq/ for the Copyright FAQ section.
Thanks, Andrew
On Thu, 29 Sep 2005, Rod Butcher wrote:
Greetings from Sydney Australia, my first post here. As a literature student who has made use of free online gutenberg texts, I thought I'd like to put something back. I couldn't find George Eliot's Felix Holt and thought maybe I could scan and proof-correct it as my contribution. Then I wondered why has it not already been done , as it is a standard text... is there a copyright problem ? As I understand it, it is in public domain in the US since it was written before Jan 1923, also here in Australia since the author died more than fifty years ago. But my UK Wordsworth Classics edition has a text copyright notice. How can they do this ? I find a similar copyright notice in other Wordsworth texts, but not in Penguin Classics. Is there some kind of "publisher's copyright" separate to the "author's copyright ?" which means I have to find an edition that doesn't assert any copyright ? Or does UK copyright work differently ? thanks Rod
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Sorry, there was a typo which made nonsense of my question. It should read :- Can I get some clarification : I have read the copyright FAQ. Most of the books we deal with here in Australia were printed in the UK. Do the rules apply everywhere, in the country where I am using the book or the country where the book was published ? Jonathan Ingram's post seems to indicate the second i.e. all books he considers for scanning where he is (UK) must be elligible under UK law, irrespective of where they were published. Hence they have to have been published (effectively printed) more than 70 years ago, no matter where they were published. Correct ? This would imply that the only law applicable here in Australia is Austraian law, no matter what the publisher in country X chooses to assert. Correct ? I'm still faced with wondering how Wordsworth Classics UK can claim a "presentation of text format" copyright on books whereas Penguin Classics doesn't. thanks Rod the community